From: Lee R. Martin (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Mar 06 1997 - 00:50:42 EST
Jonathan Robie wrote:
> I simply don't know how to understand this verse:
> Roma 1:29 (GNT) peplhrwmenous pash adikia ponhria pleonexia kakia ...
> Is PEPLHRWMENOUS an accusative absolute? (Does NT Greek use accusative
> absolutes?) What are all those dative female adjectives doing after the
> accusative participle?
The word "peplhrwmenous" appears to be an adjectival participle
(perfect), modifying "autous" in verse 28, which says "God delivered
them (autous) over to a reprobate mind . . ." Verse 29 modifies "them"
as being "filled with all unrighteousness, etc."
> Roma 1:29 (GNT) ... mestous fqonou fonou eridos dolou kakohqeias
The adjective "Mestous" meaning "full," replaces the ptc. and continues
the list of attributes.
"All those dative female adjectives" are not adjectives, they are
nouns. The first four are feminine simply because that is the gender
of those particular nouns. In the second part of the verse, three of
the nouns are masc. and two are feminine.
The nouns following peplhrwmenous are instrumental dative, because the
ptc. requires the dative. "Filled with . . ."
The nouns following mestous are genitive because that word requires the
genitive "full of . . ."
> Again, I just don't get it. I can't read this! How is MESTOUS being used
> with the accusative here?
It is an adj. modifying autous of the previous verse.
> Roma 1:30 (GNT) katalalous qeostugeis ubristas uperhfanous alazonas,
> efeuretas kakwn, goneusin apeiqeis,
> Why are these all accusative?
Again, they are adjectives modifying autous, and agreeing with it in
gender, number and case.
-- Lee R. Martin Adjunct Faculty in Old Testament and Hebrew Church of God School of Theology Cleveland, TN 37311 Pastor, Prospect Church of God
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