From: Isidoros (email@example.com)
Date: Fri Mar 07 1997 - 23:53:01 EST
In responce to a Robert Petry post on 5 Mar 1997 Carl Conrad wrote:
> IHSOU, which seems to come as close as Greek can get to the Aramaic
>form of the name, which some want to transliterate directly as English
>"Yeshua," others as "Y'shua."
Or _rather_ as close as Aramaic come to the Greek form of the name...
>the historical Jesus whose name in his native tongue was, scarcely in
>doubt, in Aramaic form.
As to the form I have noted above the difference. What I would like to
understand (sorry but it is not quite clear to me) is what is meant by
Jesus "native language." And so that I may not impose on you Professor
Conrad twice: if you meant by the above "Greek," it's alright,
I understand, and need not be any further comment. But if you meant
"Aramaic", I would appreciate any precise (not circumstantial) evidence
as for it.
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