Re: John 3:18 and English "article"

From: lakr (
Date: Wed Mar 12 1997 - 13:21:05 EST

> Carl W. Conrad (
> Mon, 10 Mar 1997 08:33:41 -0600
> In reply to: Martin A. Childs: "John 3:18 and English article "of""
> >Similarly, the relationship between "only begotten" and "Son". The Greek
> >article before "Son" is suppressed in translation. Does Koine ever use the
> >appositive?
> Certainly; moreover, although it isn't usually explained this way by
> grammarians, I've always believed that the particular device of using the
> article before an adjective to indicate that it is attributive is in fact a
> means of substantitivizing the adjective and making it an appositive:
> TON ANQRWPON TON AGAQON = "the man, i.e., the good (one)"
> However, when the adjective appears in the Greek BETWEEN the article and
> the noun, I think it would be more appropriate to say this is a
> straightforward attributive adjective. And that is what we have in John 3:18

I have been looking at alternitive translations to those commonly
provided in the major English translations and wonder if this example
fits the criteria of substantivizing of the adjective

Could the 'TON MONON' in 'TON MONON ALHQINON QEON' (John 17:3) be
translated as "the only (one) who is truly God", considering the
lack of the article before QEON ?

Or, perhaps given the definition in Thayers of alethinos as

        ["alethinos ... that which has not only the name and semblance,
        but the real nature corresponding to the name ... in every
        respect corresponding to the idea signified by the name, real
        and genuine .. a. opp (oposed) to what is fictitious, counterfeit,
        imaginary, ... Jn xvii. 3 ... it contrasts realities with
        their semblances ... Heb viii. 2; the sanctuary, Heb ix. 24."
        Thayer's lexicon, page 27.],

 "the only (one) who is by nature God". ?

Larry Kruper

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