Re: John 3.5 and the genitive

From: Micheal Palmer (
Date: Sun Mar 16 1997 - 22:36:23 EST

At 7:30 AM -0600 3/16/97, Carl W. Conrad wrote, responding in part to one
of my posts on the question of John 3:5:

>It appears to me that this discussion of John 3:5, far from moving toward
>any consensus, is almost a classic case of the old Latin tag, QUOT HOMINES
>TOT SENTENTIAE--everyone has his/her own opinion--or to paraphrase the Book
>of Judges, "There was no King in Israel in those days; everyone interpreted
>as was good in his/her own eyes."

I agree, and for that reason will not be following this thread any longer.
It seems to me that we have moved far beyond the discussion of Greek here
and are now simply stating our theological positions and using the Greek
text to justify them. Of course this statement does not do justice to ALL
of the messages sent recently on this thread, but it does seem to reflect
the general tone of the thread--even my own participation in it.

Micheal W. Palmer
Religion & Philosophy
Meredith College

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