From: BigT (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Mar 24 1997 - 01:53:32 EST
With the crumbs I have of B-Greek, I'm just trying to figure out what
John 1:1 says---exactly.
When he uses ARCHE (I hope I spelled it right) does he mean literaly "in
the beginning [of Aeons]", or does he mean, (which seems logical) "in
the beginning [of Order]"? (Ex. In highest rank is the Word...[and
then...to 1:2] he was next to God in the beginning...[a way to clarify
I don't know, I don't know the Greek language, but I'd like help.
How about "pros"? Could it mean, "...and the Word was to God what God
was to the Word"?
Hence (not supposed to be literal),
In highest rank is the Word; and this Word is to God, what God is to the
He was next to God in the beginning...
I only ask this because I'm moving to a conclusion that I'd should try
to learn Greek...I hardly enjoy most English translations, so I go to
And just to ask one last question: Can anyone fulfill the purpose of not
peddling the Word of God by translating a GNT in the light of the GNT?
The only reason I go to French is because most English bibles are
utterly colorless---it's like looking at a clone, no vibrance
whatsoever. The GNT's not so, is it? Do the words and construction of
the GNT portray some kind of character and flavor to it---not like
direct translation does? And can anyone fulfill the task of translating
in the light of the NT language and thought instead of lifeless words by
More than one last question, I know. But please forgive me for my
Kenneth A. T.
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:38:10 EDT