Re: definite and indefinite articles/ and John1:1

From: mbruffey (
Date: Sat Mar 22 1997 - 18:30:41 EST wrote:

> Also, I have a question about John 1:1

> "In beginning was the word and

As an English translation, this seems very cumbersome and distracting;
you would be better off to select a sentence which reflects current
English use and syntax. If you understand the Greek well enough to make
such a "literal" translation yourself, then you do not really need a
translation for yourself. To make such a translation in an attempt to
help those who do not know Greek would be noble but would also fail to
accomplish your goal.

> the word was towards YHWH (o theos)

Here you need to consider the full semantic range of PROS. This is
clearly an unusual use (or at least a lesser use) compared to its sense
as "toward." No single English preposition can fully communicate the
sense of warm, open fellowship between Father and Son indicated by PROS

Also, you need to provide some evidence that O THEOS = YHWH and THEOS =
Elohim. I think you will find such evidence lacking.

> and Elohim (theos) was the word."

See on THEOS above.

The article with LOGOS would normally demonstrate that LOGOS is the
subject of the sentence whereas the anarthrous THEOS would be the
predicate nominative. This offers the translation "the Word was God"
and makes a difference theologically. The Word IS God (Jesus is God),
but God IS NOT the Word (God is not [only] Jesus--God is Father AND Son
AND Holy Spirit). This seems to explain John's choice of THEOS w/o
article in this sentence. At least this explanation fits both customary
Greek syntax and orthodox theology.

You are brave to expose your ideas to others, but we ALL need to do so,
lest we fail to experience the benefit of others perspectives and

Mark Bruffey

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