questions about Acts

From: Lynn A Kauppi (
Date: Thu Mar 20 1997 - 20:11:01 EST

I would appreciate discussion and comments regarding three questions
about Luke's Greek in Acts, especially by classicists and linguists:

1. I believe that the verb APOPHTHEGGOMAI (Acts 2:4, 2:14, and 26:25) is
consistently undertranslated. I have done a preliminary TLG search and
found that the verb is generally used either to indicate the
pronouncement of philosophical maxims or si used of oracular
pronouncement. Is it not necessary to reflect both of these concepts when
translating these three verses in Acts?

2. Does Luke's use of particles reflect classical usage? E.g., at Acts
14:11 the Nestle-Aland text uses TE while the Western and majority texts
use DE. I argue in favor of retaining TE as TE consequential which better
fits the context than DE. To me, this appears to show that Luke tended
towards classical usage with particles. Also, is there any reason,
besides similarity in sound, that scribes would substitute DE for TE?

3. Is it necessary to translate LOGOS TOU THEOU in Acts 12:24 as "word of
God"? This seems almost a persistent use of "modern Christian jargon"
than a good translation. In the context of Acts 12, is not "message and
revelation of God" a better translation?

These questions are relevant to my dissertation research.

Thank you.

Lynn Allan Kauppi
PhD cand.
New Testament
Lutheran School of Theology at Chicago

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