From: Don Wilkins (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Apr 09 1997 - 21:56:09 EDT
At 9:58 PM 4/8/97, Sara R. Johnson wrote:
>I snipped the bits on Smyth here because I am beginning to realize that
>part of the confusion here might be arising from differences between
>classical and Koine Greek. Am I correct in my (novice) impression that
>Koine, unlike classical Greek, no longer distinguishes between primary and
>secondary sequence due to the loss of the optative? Classical Greek does
>distinguish between the two. A primary tense (present, future, perfect)
>normally introduces primary sequence with the subjunctive; a secondary
>tense (imperfect, aorist, pluperfect) normally introduces secondary
>sequence with the optative.
I may be misunderstanding you, but we usually speak of a primary tense
introducing indirect statement in the indicative (or suitable
alternatives), while the optative is often used in secondary sequence.
Koine did not lose this use of the optative (Luke has it, for example), but
one finds it much more often in Classical Greek.
>Getting sucked further and further in,
Watch out, Sara. You might never get out!
Hoping you do,
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