1 Pe 1 v11

From: Joe Hennessy (Tekmerion@mailhost.net)
Date: Sun Apr 20 1997 - 22:36:51 EDT


I have lurked long enough at the fringes of this august body, fearful of
exposing my ignorance by asking questions, though it's simple enough: no
questions answered, no movement out of ignorance. Duh!

In our small 3rd year NT Greek seminar we are currently dealing with 1
Peter. I am troubled by the following in 1 Pe 1:11:


How am I to make EIS CRISTON into...*of* Christ...? Rather obliquely I
can arrive at this fairly simple possessive (in most trans.) via EIS of
reference. This is most consistent with the immediately surrounding
context (prophecy, prediction, gospel preached by the H.S...) but EIS
leads me through suffering *for* Christ, or *in* Christ, before I arrive
at *of* Christ. And, vv.6-9 dwell on the significance of the Christian's
vexation. Why is this EIS a possessive? What am I missing concerning EIS
or is it something idiosyncratic to PASCEIN?

Thank you,

Joe Hennessy

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