From: Mike MacKinnon (email@example.com)
Date: Mon Apr 28 1997 - 22:01:43 EDT
Well, once again it's Mr. "I've only had a little bit 'o Greek" calling
upon the experts again...
This concerns the usage of APOLUW in Mt. 10:28: this is the phrase I'm
"phobeisthe de mallon ton dunamenon kai psuch‘n kai sšma apolesai en
As I translate it: "But fear all the more the one who has the power to
destroy spirit and body in Gehenna."
I'm thinking about "apolesai" theologically here. In the aorist
infinitive, it signifies undefined - but complete - action, does it not?
Or am I wrong in my understanding of how the aorist functions here as an
I was just pondering the argument of some annihilationists re: the doctrine
of hell, specifically Clark Pinnock, who interprets this verse to suggest
complete and utter destruction in the final fire of the judgment.
My question is this: theological positions aside, does the verb APOLUW
signify complete and utter destruction??? Furthermore, would this verb in
the aorist infinitive (as it is here) signify the same?
Thanks for considering this query!
McMaster Divinity College
Hamilton, Ontario, Canada
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:38:13 EDT