From: Gregory and Carol Yeager (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Jun 04 1997 - 00:25:39 EDT
Say, school's about out, and I'm about ready to embark on a classic
Greek journey. I've picked up an ancient grammar by John Williams White
"First Greek Book." Athenium Press, 1937. Anyone heard of it?
It prepares one for Xenophon, I understand.
I also picked up a while ago another used bookstore gem, the Anabasis,
with an interlinear translation by Thomas Clarke, of the "Hamiltonian
System." The book's copyright is 1887, but I cannot imagine a book in
such condition so old. The introduction touts the system, simple
interlinear reading, to be the wave of the future. Curious, but I don't
think it actually turned out that way. Any ideas?
Anyhow, is Xenophon a good starting place for Classic Greek?
I find it amusing that White consistently defines Greek words with Latin
words, expecting me to know them (I'd better!). He even compares Greek
inflections with Latin ones. It must have helped students at one time.
So, if any of the Great are disposed, when did the third singular
epsilon ending become epsilon nu (Im thinking of Imp.Act.Ind)? I
imagine it had something to do with movable nu, but when?
Why and when did this "dual" verbal number fade away?
Just some questions. I've one more. One individual on this list said
once he did'nt discuss hermeneutics with non-German readers, as they
could not read Gadamer in the original. Do others share this view -
that is, is Gadamer THAT important, and are his translations inadequate
BTW, I have left off calling funky nouns "Dennis Rodman" nouns. As Bill
Murray and my son would say, "It's a LITTLE funny!?"
Shalom to All!
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