From: Rolf Furuli (email@example.com)
Date: Sun Jun 08 1997 - 15:43:14 EDT
<Hello to all.
<I had a rather deep discussion recently with respect to the meaning <of
the word "God." A center of focus was why the LXX translators <would
translate the Hebrew ELOHIM as AGGELOUS, or "angels" in Psalms <8:5
(quoted in Heb 2:7).
<My friend's assertion was that the LXX translators here made a <scribal
error. My contention was that the LXX translators here <translated what
they understood the meaning of the word to be in this <context as
opposed to a slavish translation of the Hebrew.
<Is there a generally accepted scholarly answer to the question? It
<seems to me that we need to be careful to not quickly reject the LXX
<when it disagrees with what we as modern English readers think it
<should be or not be.
There is no need to postulate a scribal error. The problem is the
present lack of realization that ELOHIM was applied to other persons
than the eternal Creator and false Gods. In Psalm 82 human judges are
called "gods", and Jesus himself confirms this use in John 10:34-36.
In the book "Old Testament Quotations in the New Testament", 1983, by
G.L.Archer and G.Chirichigno, we find an interesting comment on p 59,
where the authors show that also in Ps 97:7 and 138:1 are angels called
`ELOHIM (the LXX has "angels" both places).This suggests that their
opinion was that `ELOHIM could refer to angels. Look also at Ex 4:16 and
This use of `Elohim may also be taken into account when the anarthrous
QEOS of John 1:1 and the phrase MONOGENHS QEOS of John 1:18 are
Ph.D candidate in Semitic languages
University of Oslo
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