Re: Sexist Language

Date: Thu Jun 26 1997 - 00:25:14 EDT

In a message dated 97-06-25 09:31:32 EDT,
Lemuel G. Abarte wrote
>>The point I am trying to make is this: The writers of the NT have a
 theology. That theology is reflected in their writings. When Paul used
 the word EPISKOPOS, he was talking about - men. There is no reference to
 women. The same with DIAKONOS. >>

Hate to disagree with you but Rom 16:1 lists Phobe as a DIAKONON. What
theology would Paul be reflecting here?

>>The use of words in the GNT with etymology of sexist connotations could not
be removed. There are words used that only apply to the male of the
species. There are words where gender is not implied but from a
theological perspective apply only to the male of the species.>>

There are clear instances where the language is clearly referring to both
males and females (as noted in previous posts). The task of the interpreter
is to determine when the occurence of ANQRWPOS is in reference to all
adherents -- male and female -- and when it is a clear reference to male
adherents, as the word carries more than one connotation. Only after one
determines the meaning of a passage can one attempt to determine a theology.
 To do less is to destroy the hermeneutic process and deny faithfulness to
the text

B.B. Warfield 's sermons are of little value in a discussion of the Greek
text. For a good theological dissection of Warfield you may want to examine
Jon Ruthven's On the Cessation of the Charismata.

Keith Whitt

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