Date: Fri Jun 20 1997 - 17:49:15 EDT
I'm creeping out of the shadows to ask the experts on here for an opinion.
I have been looking at these two books and am inclined to agree with the
opinion that the Greek used is pretty convincing evidence that the Revelation
was not written by the Evangelist. Can anybody comment on the pros and cons
of this position? I still find Greek difficult and have limited confidence
that I have made a valid judgement.
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