From: James C. Clardy, Jr. (JClar100@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Sun Jun 29 1997 - 23:20:02 EDT
James Krieg, in a little commentary, has a paragraph on the "hwi hH
doxa" of Galatians 1:5.
He indicates that most translators supply the verb "be," thus making it
subjunctive, meaning something like "God should BE glorified."
However, pointing to similar structures in 1 PET 4:1 and ROM 1:25, he
argues that it should really be indicative, "to whom IS glory." This
makes its factual rather than potential, according to Krieg.
Does this understanding have merit? Does it sound reasonable? And does
it make much difference in actual exegesis?
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