From: Rod Decker (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Aug 05 1997 - 07:40:08 EDT
>When most instances of
>aorist have past meaning, is past time an intrinsic part of aorist, or is
>it just the convention that because of the nature of the aspect it is used
>in past contexts?
Let's revise that statement just a bit: "most instances of the *aorist
indicative* have past meaning." But that points to part of the resolution:
what does the *aorist* mean? It must be something that carries over from
indicative to oblique moods, else we have not defined the *aorist*. That
would seemingly eliminate any temporal definition.
Thanks for your other comments.
(I'm CCing this to Rolf just in case the dire warning of our list leader
comes true. A month (or even 2 weeks) without b-greek?! I may get more of
this diss. written than I thought! :) If so, see [read?] you the end of
Rodney J. Decker Baptist Bible Seminary
Asst. Prof./NT P O Box 800
email@example.com Clarks Summit PA 18411
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