From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Aug 14 1997 - 08:25:30 EDT
I've often wondered why so many people pluralize the title of this book; is
it because it seems such a hodge-podge of disparate "revelationS"? Yet the
Greek title is singular: APOKALUYIS.
At 7:28 AM -0400 8/14/97, Jonathan Robie wrote:
>I'm not sure if I am reading these two verbs correctly. The entire verse
>Rev 1:1 APOKALUPSIS IHSOU CRISTOU hHN EDWKEN AUTWi hO QEOS DEIKSAI TOIS
>DOULOIS AUTOU hA DEI GENESQAI EN TACEI, KAI *ESHMANEN* *APOSTEILAS* DIA TOU
>AGGELOU AUTOU TWi DOULWi AUTOU IWANNHi
>The participle APOSTEILAS has to be interpreted relative to the verb
>ESHMANEN. As I understand it, the verse says that Jesus has made clear the
>things which will happen (ESHMANEN), having sent (APOSTEILAS) to his servant
>John via his angel.
>Is this relationship "has made clear, having sent" the right way to
>interpret ESHMANEN APOSTEILAS in this verse?
Presumably the participle here doesn't have temporal significance, so I
think it could be understood as indicating HOW he "made clear"--namely, by
sending (them) to his servant by means of an angel ...
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Summer: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(704) 675-4243
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