From: lakr (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Sep 02 1997 - 13:00:00 EDT
I'm trying get a feel for the Greek of John 17:4, and I'm a bit
stumped with the 'INA POIHSW'. My copy of Porter's Idioms calls this
a 'content clause'.
Joh 17:4 EGW SE EDOCASA EPI THS GHS
TO ERGON TELEIWSAS O DEDWKAS MOI INA POIHSW
The other place I see this used is John 4:34. I have conditioned myself,
probably in error, to always look for a meaning when I see a subjunctive
that relates to 'might', something that has not happened, etc.
I'll admit I don't understand subjunctive. But in verse 17:4, Jesus
has already completed the work 'TO ERGON TELEIWSAS' and yet this
work is described as 'INA POIHSW'. This work was not completed when
Jesus spoke the words in John 4:34, so I don't see a conflict between
this instance and my understanding of the use of the subjunctive.
Why is 'INA POIHSW' not in the indicative in John 17:4 ? The only thing
I can come up with is that the 'INA PIIHSW' is refering to the time
when he was given the work and before he completed it.
PS I'll try not to introduce elementary questions on B-GREEK by doing
research before I post and so I am also interested in what resources might
be available to which I can refer to answer questions like this.
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