From: Williams, Wes (Wes.Williams@echostar.com)
Date: Wed Sep 03 1997 - 14:56:15 EDT
>In a sentence or clause containing an
>articular noun and an anarthrous noun (such as in Jn 1:1c, but not
>the rule is that the subject is denoted by the articular noun. Can
>anybody give me an exception to this rule in the Greek NT? LXX? Other
>Greek writings? Is there any Greek writing where in the same sentence
>clause an anarthrous noun is the subject and an articular noun is the
I am really interested in the answer to this! So far, I haven't noticed
exceptions in my reading, but my antenae may not have been on the right
frequency to notice.
This will be hotly contested, but how about Phil 2:13?
For God is the One acting within YOU for the sake of his good
QEOS GAR ESTIN hO ENERGWN ...
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