From: David L. Moore (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Sep 18 1997 - 11:10:02 EDT
Matt Bell <firstname.lastname@example.org> wrote:
>I need a definition of the Gk word Kananites as used of Simon the Canaanite
>in Matthew 10:4. What, if any, is its relation to Luke's Simon Zelotes in
>6:15? Any information on the word would be greatly appreciated.
>The two terms are apparently references to Zealots in Aramaic and
>Greek respectively. The late F. F. Bruce says, "The Zealots ... called
>themselves by the Hebrew term _qanna'im_ or the Aramaic _qan'anayya_. The
>apostle whom Luke calls 'Simon the Zealot' (Luke 6:15; Acts 1:13) is
>referred to by the other Synoptic Evangelists as 'Simon the Cananaean'
>3:19; Matt. 10:4)--'cananaean' being the Aramaic form supplied with a Greek
>ending" (F. F. Bruce, _New Testament History_, [Doubleday: Garden City, NY,
>1969], p. 93).
>Thanks David. Just a supplementary question. The word 'Cananaean' is from
>the modern versions, the King James Version uses the word Canaanite. Does
>the same apply to canaanite as with cananaean i.e. 'being the Aramic form
>supplied with a Greek ending'. Is the Greek word used for Canaanite
>(Kananites) also equivalent to the Aramaic Zelotes? Thanks in advance.
I think Jack Kilmon answered the latter question when he wrote,
"Originally it was Simon the Zealot, not Canaanite which was [sc. has?] a
kaph and not qof." That is, the two words are spelled differently in
Aramaic. In Greek they are spelled differently, too. Cananaean, as in
Zealot (Mat. 10:4; Mk. 3:18), has the initial letter kapa in Greek, whereas
Canaanite begins with the letter chi (eg. Mat. 15:22). As to why the KJV
rendered the former "Canaanite," I'm at a loss to explain. The KJV
translators may have taken KANANAIOS for a variant spelling of XANANAIOS.
Variations in spelling are not uncommon in the rendering of foreign words
into Koine Greek.
David L. Moore
Miami, Florida, USA
Southeastern Spanish District of the A/G Dept. of Education
Home Page: http://members.aol.com/dvdmoore
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