From: Rev. Craig R. Harmon (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Sep 18 1997 - 09:53:19 EDT
XARIS hUMIN KAI EIRHNH APO THEOU PATROS hHMWN KAI KURIOU IHSOU XRISTOU.
I have recently taken good advise that I have read here in the b-greek
archives, to whit, connected reading of the gnt (whole books, beginning
to end, in addition to my weekly study of pericopes for sermon
preparation). I have chosen John as the starting point for my reading,
beginning with 1,2 and 3 letters of John. I have just begun now with the
Gospel of John and a question has arisen in my studies that perhaps
someone here can clear up.
In John 1:3 I read: PANTA DIā AUTOU EGENETO... My question is this: to
whom does AUTOU refer? Now I think that it refers to hO LOGOS of verses
1 and 2. The thing is, the nearest referent (at the end of verse 2) is
THEON as in hOUTOS HN ... PROS TON THEON. The thing is, why doesnāt the
pronoun AUTOU of verse 3 refer to the noun THEON as the nearest referent
(as I believe would be the case in English). Is there a definite
grammatical aspect operating here? Or am I letting my theology interpret
Scripture (wanting to prove Jesusā divinity and preexistence by showing
that the Son was active agent of Creation and not a product of the
Fatherās creative work) rather than allowing valid interpretation to
Now I am convinced that the NT teaches the divinity and preexistence of
the Son. My question is: is that what is being taught HERE? Any help
will be greatly appreciated.
-- MONWi SOFWi THEWi, DIA IHSOU CRISTOU, hWi hH DOXA EIS TOUS AIWNAS TWN AIWN; AMHN. Romans 16:27 But thanks to you as well.
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