Re: hUPAGEI in 1 John 2:11

From: Carl W. Conrad (
Date: Tue Sep 23 1997 - 06:35:35 EDT

At 11:02 AM -0500 9/22/97, Paul Zellmer wrote:
>Let me stick my neck out again! In 1 John 2:11, the word many times
>translated as, "he goes," is hUPAGEI. Yet, in looking at the usages of
>the word in the Gospels, in James, and in Revelation, it seems to allow
>an almost unanimous translation of "depart," even though this is not
>the translation normally used in the English.
>In this case in 1 John, if it were translated, "he departs," I would
>see a reference back to the concept in 1 John 2:9, where the man thinks
>he is in the light, but is not. He doesn't know where he is departing,
>since his eyes are blinded and he thinks he's ok. What do you all
>think? Is this translation permissable? Or should I be hesitant to
>use it for some reason I do not see?

If there is a stronger case to be made for hUPAGEI here as "departs," I
would really like to hear/read it. I really think, however, that it has to
mean "is going" in this instance. Reasons: (1) the pretty obvious parallel
in the Johannine corpus of Jn 12:35, hO PERIPATWN EN THi SKOTIAi OUK OIDEN
POU hUPAGEI; (2) even granting that "depart" is a common sense of
hUPAGW--just as it is of the English "go" (e.g. "I'm going; can I do
anything for you before I go?"), I think the sense "go" is more primary;
also, unless I'm mistaken, the Koine verb hUPAGW is the source of the
modern Greek verb "go," PAW.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649 OR

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