RE: John 1:1 QEOS definitely definite?

From: Williams, Wes (
Date: Fri Sep 19 1997 - 17:54:25 EDT


> Is, "the Word was a god" a
> legitimate translation from a strictly grammatical point of
view (all
* theology aside)?

Yes, it is. See 1 Kings 18:27 where Elijah cried out in mockery with
respect to Baal:


Brenton's LXX translated it: "for he is a god."

Note that this is the same construction of an anarthrous predicate
nominative QEOS preceeding the copulative verb EIMI as exists in John

Wes Williams

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