From: Williams, Wes (Wes.Williams@echostar.com)
Date: Fri Sep 26 1997 - 19:06:29 EDT
James C. Clardy, Jr. wrote:
>>Is there any biblical(Greek, LXX)/extra-biblical writings which would
confirm the view that SHEOL and HADES are to be equated?<<
The first mention of HADES in the LXX is at Gen 37:35. The LXX
translators used HADES to translate the Hebrew SHEOL, the place where
righteous Jacob expected to go and where he though Joseph already was.
Brentons: Gen. 37:34 And all his sons and his daughters gathered
themselves together, and came to comfort him; but he would not be
comforted, saying, I will go down to my son mourning to Hades; and his
father wept for him.
Rahlfs: Gen. 37:35 LEGWN hOTI KATABHSOMAI PROS TON hUION MOU PENQWN EIS
RSV "No, I shall go down to Sheol to my son, mourning."
Further, Peter quoted Ps 16:10 and used HADES as a translation of SHEOL:
RSV Acts 2:31 the Christ, that he was not abandoned to Hades,
GNT: TOU XRISTOU, hOTI OUTE EGKATELEIFQH EIS hADHN
Ps 15:10 LXX: hOTI OUK EGKATALEIYEIS THN YUXHN EIS hADHN
"since you will not leave my soul in HADES"
So, there is no question that HADES and SHEOL were equated words.
I suppose the unavoidable question is, in the mind of first century
Christians, did the semantic signal generated by the word HADES trigger
the SHEOL concept of "grave"/ "realm of the dead" (note: not "undead")?
Or rather a place with a fiery river Styx that needed to be crossed in a
boat with an oarsman?
Since Peter used the word as a translation for SHEOL, that is a strong
argument for the former. This understanding is consistent with Rev 20:13
where one day HADES will give up the "_dead_" in it.
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