From: Peter Phillips (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Oct 02 1997 - 03:29:54 EDT
Are you translating the Greek r an assumed Hebrew reconstruction of the
Greek? We do not have any extant Hebrew original of Matthew's gospel and
there is little evidence that what we know as Matthew is the same as
Papias' Hebrew Gospel. Moreover the Greek you quote is actually wrong.
The text says OPSE DE SABBATWN, TH EPIFWSKHI EIS MIAN SABBATWN...
You may want to offer some interesting possible translations of Hebrew
derivatives or even the Greek original. But it would help to get the
actual text right in the first place. And finally, what is more important
- the correct translation of the actual Greek text, or your interpretation
of a subjective derivation of a postulated Hebrew original. And what if
the original was in Aramaic?
From: Roberto Dam [SMTP:email@example.com]
Sent: 02 October 1997 09:09
To: Kevin W. Woodruff
Cc: Coomes, Susan L; Bfirstname.lastname@example.org
Subject: Re: Translations
Kevin W. Woodruff wrote:
> The term "began to dawn" defines the time. the term "dawn" is the
> participle of _epiphosko_ which means "to shine forth" or "dawn"
> light was present, ie. that this was early Sunday morning . Mark's
> tells us that the resurrection was "early" the term _proi_ which is
> as "at daybreak between 5:00 A. M. to 6:00 A.M.
> Christ was crucified on the day of preparation for the Sabbath
> which is the technical term for "Friday"
> The problem is that the term three days and nights is an Semetic idiom
> means three days inclusive. Other uses of this idiom are I Samuel 30:
> compare with verse 13 where it was only three days since he had fallen
> not four. and Esther 4:16 where Esther says she will fast three days
> three nights and yet on the third day she goes to the king, not the
> fourth day.
> At 10:17 AM 10/1/97 -0500, you wrote:
> >I am trying to find out at what part of the day the "dawn" was in
> >day. Matthew 28:1 states "Now after the sabbath, as the first
> >of the week began to dawn..."
> >Since the first day started at sundown Saturday night, it would
> >to me that the point in time that they are referring to would be the
> >night portion of sunday...and not in the morning as we consider it to
> >It would appear to me that they got to the tomb just as the sabbath
> >ended (late saturday night) as the sabbath restrictions had just
> >and Sunday was now beginning. I find it hard to believe that they
> >sleep all night considering what had just happened if they were free
> >go to the tomb when the sabbath ended. It seems to me that they went
> >there on "our" saturday night to find that he had already risen....it
> >seems to me from all the scriptures that he did not rise on sunday.
> >was crucified on Thursday and rose on Saturday. I have traced the
> >events of passion week and I can not make a friday crucifixion fit
> >thanks for your help. Also, do you know what the word for Cherubim
> >I know that we think it is an angel but I find more evidence that it
> >in fact a planet, reference Ezekiels passages about the wheel and how
> >moves, it describes our solar system perfectly. Also in studying the
> >tabernacle and its designs and how the heavens are his footstool it
> >of makes you wonder. I had read something that stated that the word
> >Cherubim had been misiterpred and it actually meant orbit.
> Kevin W. Woodruff, M.Div.
> Library Director/Reference Librarian
> Cierpke Memorial Library
> Tennessee Temple University/Temple Baptist Seminary
> 1815 Union Ave.
> Chattanooga, Tennessee 37404
> United States of America
> 423/493-4252 (office)
> 423/698-9447 (home)
> 423/493-4497 (FAX)
> Cierpke@utc.campus.mci.net (preferred)
> email@example.com (alternate)
Answer to Susan and Kevin:I am having great problems in translating Mt.
28:1 too. I agree with both of you that
Yeshuah did not rise on Sunday but on Motzei shabat (at the end of
shabat, i.e., after c. 6:30 pm). The problem with the EPIPHOSKO word is
that in Hebrew, which was the original
language in which Matitiahu/Mt. was written in, (see bishop Papias,
Origen, etc.) can
mean both "at dawn" as well as its opposite "at dusk". that is, Yeshuah
may have been not on his tomb already late at night on the shabat.
My question and problem, though, lies elsewhere. It says in Greek: OPSE
TON SABATON, TON EMERA SABATON.
Now, my guess is that sabaton does not mean, as everyone has translated
it, "week", since
there is a word for week in Greek, BDOMADA. What TON EMERA SABATON
really means, in my very modest opinion, is "the first (of seven yearly)
shabats," i.e., the
Pesach/Passover shabat, the first of the year.
There is, however, a remaining problem. If Miriam and the other sisters
had to wait for the
shabat to end in order to walk to the tomb, and if the TON EMERA SABATON
the beginning of the first of seven yearly sabats, how come they could
not approach the tomb on a weekly shabat, but could do the same on a
greater shabat, which is the first
(of seven) yearly shabat?!
Can somebody help me with this riddle?
Beit Shalom Messianic Congregations,
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