Re: Particle with the Vocative

From: Carl W. Conrad (
Date: Thu Oct 02 1997 - 09:41:20 EDT

At 9:36 AM -0500 10/2/97, Knox Mike wrote:
>I am resending this message in the hopes that someone may respond to it.
>Michael Knox
>>Hello fellow B-Greekers,
>> In Matt:15:28b, Jesus makes the following statement to the Canaanite
>> Max Zerwick, in his grammar(#35), says that the omission of the
>particle before the vocative is the rule in Hellenistic usage. >Thus, he
>believes that it may be significant whenever the particle is seen before the
>vocative. He further states, that with the >exception of the book of Acts
>(which he says still retains Attic influence), the occurrence of the
>particle before the vocative seems to >suggest deep emotion on the part of
>the speaker. Does anyone have any comments about this?

I saw this when you first posted it, Mike, and scratched my head. It may be
true that there's a difference between vocative with and without the W, but
I really am rather skeptical. I'd like to see some real evidence, and I am
inclined to think this is only a conjecture. Which is to say, of course,
that I really don't know!

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649 OR

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