Re: 1Thess. 4:14, what about dia?

From: John M. Sweigart (
Date: Tue Oct 07 1997 - 12:29:53 EDT

Jonathan Robie wrote:
> At 10:37 AM 10/7/97 -0500, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
> >Jonathan Robie wrote:
> >>...but I still don't understand the interpretation "who have
> >>fallen asleep in Jesus"
> >I'm not sure what it is that you don't understand here, Jonathan.
> I may well be missing something obvious here, but I just don't understand
> how TOUS KOIMHQENTAS DIA TOU IHSOU can be interpreted as "those who have
> fallen asleep in Jesus". What would be the sense of DIA that can lead to
> that interpretation, which is used in these translations?
> KJV: For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also
> which sleep in Jesus will God bring with him.
> NIV: We believe that Jesus died and rose again and so we believe that God
> will bring with Jesus those who have fallen asleep in him.
> Jonathan
> ***************************************************************************
> Jonathan Robie
> POET Software, 3207 Gibson Road, Durham, N.C., 27703
> ***************************************************************************
The only sense that makes sense to me is a causal use of DIA. I want to
study more of Carl's comments about the placement of the phrase and the
use of the participle (the passive). I think the NT is pretty
consistent with the EN XRISTW formula. Also, considering the early
history of the church it seems conceivable that some believers could
have been martyred. I would suspect that this issue may have been the
cause of the teaching in 2 Thess about the Man of Sin and having the
church there getting confused about the Day of the Lord, etc.


Rev. John M. Sweigart Box 895 Dover, Arkansas 72837 Cumberland Presbyterian Church __________________________________

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:38:31 EDT