"At Hand"

From: BanjoBoyd@aol.com
Date: Sat Oct 18 1997 - 09:05:10 EDT

<< If you asked the list about whether the perfect tense in HGGIKEN here has
temporal force (i.e. "has arrived") you would probably get a fairly full
explanation. >>

SO, I'm asking. I once asked a translator why he had John saying "The
kingdom of heaven has arrived!" (Mt.3:2) He replied that this was the
literal Greek, and should be understood as guest, pulling into the driveway,
and a child running through the house saying "They have arrived!" when as yet
they were not at the door. Is this "has (already) arrived" or "is drawing
near?" And if anyone knows, where did the English idom "at hand" originate.
 Was this an invention of the translators, or an expression already common in
old England?

(By the way: The translator did revise his draft and the translation
published was "is near.")

The Barbarian
Royal Palm Beach, Fl.

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