Re: 1 Cor. 16:22

From: Edgar M. Krentz (
Date: Thu Oct 16 1997 - 21:33:40 EDT

>While working my way through 1 Cor. 16, I came across PHILEW in verse
>22. After having read the appropriate lexical articles, I still don't
>have a concrete understanding of the semantic range of the verb. The
>whole sentence seems in the form of a conditional curse. Is the idea
>then love=obedience? Or could it mean love=kiss in the sense of Psalm
>2? Kiss the Son, etc. To whom is the warning directed? Believer,
>unbeliever. Can we determine this without making certain assumptions.
>Could we translate PHILEW=welcome and use it as point counterpoint for
>MARANATHA (sic) Comments please.

John, if you can obtain it read "The Anathema in the Early Christian Lord's
Supper Liturgy," part B of "On the Understanding of Worship,{ by Guenther
Bornkamm, pp. 169-176 in EARLY CHRISTIAN EXPERIENCE. New York & Evanston:
Harper & Row, 1969. He argues that Paul is here citing from an early
eucharistic ritual prevalent in Corinth. And he points out that the
conditional sentence is a sentence of casuistic law--just what you say.
There is a strong parallel to this passage in the Didache's discussion of
the Lord's supper, which you might want to check out also.

                * Edgar Krentz *
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