Re: Puzzled on Inf. in Mk 2:15

From: Maurice A. O'Sullivan (
Date: Tue Oct 21 1997 - 12:32:01 EDT

At 11:07 21/10/97 -0400, you wrote:
>How is the infinitive functioning here? From the flow of the context I want
>to translate the phrase as "and he was reclining"--but that doesn't fit any
>typical patterns of infinitive useage that I recall. I note that the NIV
>translates it temporally: "when he was reclining"--but I don't think of
>other infinitives used temporally without a preposition (META, EN, PRO,
>Any suggestions appreciated.

You might like to have a look at p.16-17 of Vol. 1 of Moulton's "Grammar of
New Testament Greek" where he is dealing with with EGENETO under the
rubric of "Hebraisms in Luke". He has a reference to :
" EAV GENHTAI with infinitive was good contemporary vernacular .
So was GINETAI ( as Mk 2:15 ) see Par P 49 ( ii / B.C ).
>From this to EGENETO is but a step, which Luke alone of NT writers seems to
have taken; the isolated example in Mk 2:23 .........."

The use of EGENETO + infinitive in Luke gets a very informative treatment
in Zerwick's "Biblical Greek", where in a footnote to par. 389
he classifies N.T usage under three headings:

1. EGENETO with a finite verb, not preceeded by KAI (the construction used
by the LXX which often omits the KAI necessary to Hebrew idiom
2. EGENETO with KAI and a finite verb ( the 'Hebrew construction' )
3.EGENETO with the infinitive ( the 'Greek' construction ).

The "Greek construction" would seem to chime with Moulton's opionion on
"good contemporary vernacular", wouldn't you say?

Hope this is of some help.

Maurice A. O'Sullivan [ Bray, Ireland ]

[using Eudora Pro 3 and Trumpet Winsock 3.0d ]

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:38:33 EDT