From: Brian E. Wilson (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Oct 13 1997 - 06:24:38 EDT
>Clay Bartholomew wrote:
>There seems to be an endless preoccupation on this list
>with questions of how to render this or that Greek word or
>phrase into English. Does this type of question really merit
>the kind of attention it receives? Do we really get any
>closer to the meaning of the ancient text by constantly
>fussing about which is the preferable English gloss for a
>particular Greek word?
>Is translation into ones mother tongue an essential part of
>exegesis? I am beginning to have strong doubts about this.
>I have a growing suspicion that translation into English
>teaches you more about English than it does about the
Yes. It seems to me that the important question so often is not what
exactly does a word or phrase mean, but why the word or phrase was used
by the writer at that point.
Why did John use LOGOS in John 1:1?
Why did Luke use LOGOS in Acts 1:1?
Why did Mark use LOGOS in Mark 2:2?
If we can answer these questions, will we not have found out a great
deal about the meaning of these passages, even if we leave the term
LOGOS untranslated in them?
Brian E. Wilson
Please visit my homepage - http://www.twonh.demon.co.uk/
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:38:34 EDT