Re: participles

From: Clayton Bartholomew (
Date: Tue Oct 28 1997 - 05:25:02 EST

Johathan wrote:
At 03:59 PM 10/27/97 -0500, Mary L B Pendergraft wrote:
>What I tell my students is that Greek frequently likes to use one finite
>verb and one or more participles where English prefers to use parallel
>finite verbs. So, while the participle isn't really an imperative, it
>would be more idiomatic in English to use one: "Go and teach." Similarly,
>in the preceding verse, it's more typical of English to say, "Jesus
>approached them and spoke to them...."
Looking at your reply and Carl's, both of you stop just short of saying that
the adverbial participle takes on the mood of the finite verb with which it
is associated, e.g. if the finite verb is in the imperative mood, the
participle is to be interpreted as an imperative; if the finite verb is in
the indicative mood, the participle is to be interpreted as indicative.

Would that rule be valid? Does it describe the way NT Greek participles
really work?


Are you not letting your English translation drive your understanding of
Greek syntax? Mary did not say that this participle is an imperative. She
said it translates well as an English imperative. There is a big difference
between these two statements. Confusion on this issue seems to be
rather common in the discussions that take place on b-greek.

Clay Bartholomew
Three Tree Point

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