Re: NUN+Aorist, NUN+imperfect

From: Rod Decker (
Date: Tue Oct 28 1997 - 20:42:53 EST

I was reading Ken McKay's article again tonight, "Time and Aspect in NT
Greek" NovT 34 (1992):209-28 and noted a reference that is related to the
current thread. He comments as follows:

[talking about NUN, HDH, & ARTI] ... "with an aorist or imperfect tense may
mark present time only as the point against which the the effective
pastness of the verb is measured..."

Now then, my question is, what does that mean? I may simply be tired
tonight, but it doesn't seem exactly perspicuous to me. (Anyone on the list
from "down under" who happens to know McKay and who might ask for an
explanation? If I knew that he had an email address for his Mac, I'd write
him myself.)



 Rodney J. Decker Baptist Bible Seminary
 Asst. Prof./NT P O Box 800 Clarks Summit PA 18411 USA

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