From: Jim West (jwest@highland.net)
Date: Tue Dec 30 1997 - 21:47:00 EST
Ruth Ellison wrote:
>
> Despite the seasonal appropriateness, the timing of this request is purely
> coincidental. I've been reading Porter on aspect (head hasn't stopped
> spinning yet) and in his section on possible Semitic influences he mentions
> a theory that Luke 1-2 is translation Greek. Could somebody please
> summarise for me what exactly this theory entails, the arguments for and
> against, and some bibliographical pointers (preferably not German <g>)?
>
Take a look at the extraordinary commentary on Luke by Luke Timothy
Johnson in the Sacra Pagina series. He discusses the notion that Luke
used a source here (and dismisses it) and he also discusses the whole
argument. Very good!!!!
(and not in German).
Leb wohl!
> Thanks in anticipation. If by chance this matter has already been raised
> in the past month, forgive me -- I'm way behind on reading digests.
>
> -----------------------------------------------------------------------
> Ruth Ellison rufus@tmx.com.au
>
> .sig currently in pre-season training
> -----------------------------------------------------------------------
-- +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++Jim West
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