From: Jim West (jwest@highland.net)
Date: Thu Jan 01 1998 - 15:40:02 EST
At 01:59 PM 1/1/98 -0600, you wrote:
>If Weingreen is right,
Weingreen IS clearly right! :)
>is Moo then misinterpreting the Hebrew construct
>genitive in these cases?
Yes. But then again he may be refering to the LXX's use of the phrase "d. th."
>Is the Hebrew really talking about an attribute
>of God - i.e., does Psalm 51:4 ("God of my salvation") REALLY MEAN "my
>saving God" and do the verses in Psalm 119 ("the judgments of your
>righteousness") REALLY MEAN "your righteous judgments" (which is how KJV
>translates 119, though it translates Ps. 51:14 as Moo does)?
>
the Hebrew construct is slippery at best, which is why W. says "may". A
world of possibilities lies open on that "may". See the extraordinarily
thorough discussion of the issue of genitives in Gesenius' Hebrew Grammar,
s.v. "genitive" in the index.
>--
>"Eric S. Weiss"
>http://home1.gte.net/eweiss/index.htm
>eweiss@gte.net
Jim
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West
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