RE: Ambiguities intentional?

From: Andrew Kulikovsky (anku@celsiustech.com.au)
Date: Mon Jan 12 1998 - 18:40:09 EST


The argument for intentional ambiguities comes up often but I really
doubt its validity.

What purpose would the writer have in making his communication ambiguous
and therefore confusing?

The only reason I can think of is the use of "a play on words" but even
then this is not really that ambiguous.

cheers,
Andrew

-- 
Andrew S. Kulikovsky B.App.Sc(Hons) MACS
Software Engineer
CelsiusTech Australia
Module 6, Endeavour House,Technology Park,
The Levels, S.A. 5095
Phone :	+61 8 8343 3837 (Direct)
Fax :	+61 8 8343 3778
Email :	anku@celsiustech.com.au

"There's no gene for the human spirit."

> -----Original Message----- > From: Revcraigh [SMTP:Revcraigh@aol.com] > Sent: Tuesday, January 13, 1998 9:33 AM > To: B-Greek@virginia.edu > Subject: Ambiguities intentional? > > Dear B-Greekers, > > In thinking through some recent posts (mostly those on Rom. 3:22a: > DIA > PISTEWS IHSOU XRISTOU), I began wondering about the ambiguities > presented by > the various ways of taking genitives (particularly > subjective/objective > genitives). Is it, in anyone's opinion, possible that the ambiguities > of a > phrase like DIA PISTEWS IHSOU XRISTOU (faith/faitfulness which Jesus > Christ > has/displayed on earth [possessive or subjective gen.]; or which Jesus > Christ > gives to/enables in his chosen people [cause or source]; or which has > Jesus > Christ as its object [objective]) might be *intended* by Paul? That he > might > mean *all* of these at once? That this might be why he does not make > his > intended meaning more definitely clear? That the interpreter's task is > not to > determine which *one* is right but, given the various possibilities, > what each > or all of them mean? That quibbling over which one is right to the > exclusion > of all others is not only pointless but actually *misses* much or even > most of > Paul's point(s)? > > Just wondering out loud. > > Rev. Craig R. Harmon.



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