Re: Re: Matthew 28:19

From: Revcraigh (Revcraigh@aol.com)
Date: Fri Jan 23 1998 - 16:23:30 EST


In a message dated 1/23/98 6:18:26 PM, Scott wrote:

<<Well, I have never had a problem with it either. That is, untill I came

across a "new" denomination that uses this verse to withhold baptism from

people. They say that Jesus was saying you have to be made into a disciple

first (of course putting all kinds of legalism into their version of

discipleship), then be baptized. I always understood it to say that baptism

and teaching are how disciples are made. Given this conflict, I am trying

to better understand the original text.

Scott Schreiber

>>

I agree with this view. However I understand that at least some in the early
Church did not baptize one until he/she had been instructed (what we might
call, "Confirmed.") No?

"Regarding baptism. Baptized as folows: after first explaining all these
points, baptize in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy
Spirit, in running water." --Didache #7 (fairly legalistic itself), dated by
some as early as 60-70 C.E. (Quoted from Readings in Church History Vol. 1 Ed.
Colman J. Barry, O.S.B.) Given this, there may be very early precedent for
this "new" denomination's practice.

Probably gone far afield from b-greek so I won't go any farther with it but,
given Scott's conflict, I wanted to add this 2 cents worth.

Rev. Craig R. Harmon.



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