RE: <Phi 3.3> Serve by or the Spirit of God

From: Francisco Orozco (fran4@rtn.uson.mx)
Date: Thu Jan 22 1998 - 12:29:22 EST


Paul:
        Hi, yes, it has been a long time since we last e-spoke. I have been a
lurker in this list for some time, and I appreciate the help and expertise
that are found here.
        I read Metzger's comments on the variant, and QEWi did not convince me as
original. I think that it might have been Rom 1.9 & 2 Tim 1.3 which
influenced some scribes to write QEWi... but that's an issue for the
TC-List. It seems that the sense is for all practical purposes agreeable:
either "we worship God in spirit" (opposite to mere external worship, cf
John 4.24) or "we worship by the Spirit of God" which likewise makes
perfect sense.
        I agree as well that most will not have a problem with affirming that we
worship the Spirit (cf. Lenski on loc).
        Now that I am looking closer at Rom 1.9, it does seem very parallel....
hmmm. I need to consider it further.
        Concerning "Furthermore, the anarthrous PNUEMATI would then better be
taken, not as referring to the Holy Spirit, but to man's spirit, or as "in
spirit" in contrast to the following EN SARKI." In a quick check of
PNEUMATI (mostly in Paul), I found no regular use of the anarthrous
PNEUMATI as referring to the human spirit, it (the noun without the
article) seems to me that it may refer to both the human spirit and to the
Spirit depending on context without any noticeable difference whether it
has the article or not. Yet, the contrast with SARKI is a good point.
        What do you think of Mat 12.28 (though it has the EV there), Rom 2.29
(circumcision being the issue), 1 Cor 12.3 (EV present though) & 2 Cor
3.3?
        Would it be correct to say that taking as the reading that of QEOU, the
translation *ought* to be "worship by the Spirit of God"? This is the
bottom line in my thinking at the present time.

Thanks!
Francisco Orozco
fran4@rtn.uson.mx



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