Re: John 1:1

From: clayton stirling bartholomew (c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Sat Jan 31 1998 - 07:06:28 EST


Ron J Macy wrote:
>
> Many of you were writting from the perspective that Logos was a person in
> verse 1. My question is: Is this determined linguistically or
> theologically?
>
Posing this question as an either/or means that you cannot arrive at the
correct answer. The question cannot be an either/or it must involve a both.
All linguists have metaphysical commitments that color their reading of any
text, even the NY Times.

-- 
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255  Seahurst WA 98062


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