Date: Sun Feb 01 1998 - 17:49:24 EST
Heb. 10:20 ASV -- "...by the way which he dedicated for us, a new
and living way, through the veil, that is to say,
There's a popular teaching, based on the above, that runs something
The veil was a picture of the flesh of Christ...
Associated with this, are frequently mentioned:
John 1:14, "the Word...dwelt [skenoo/'tabernacled'] among us".
Also, how Jesus referred to his person as a naos/temple that
'if destroyed, he would raise it up again in three days'
After Christ's death, 'we no longer know Christ, after the
flesh...' (2 Cor. 5:16)--which is symbolically presented in the
veil's being torn.
I, personally, have problems with the above teaching.
First of all, the flow of Hebrews begins with the Son--better than
the angels and better than Moses; it continues on with the better
priesthood of Christ; then, it goes into the better sacrifice,
then--it's suggested--'the author interjects that Christ's flesh is
symbolized by part of the building'. (To my way of thinking, this
is like throwing a 'wrench in the works'...it comes out of nowhere
and doesn't fit in with the flow.)
Secondly, the tabernacle (which the temple was fashioned after) was
'made according to the pattern given to Moses, on the mount'--which
was of a heavenly tabernacle, which was heaven itself. If this is
so...then where does the "body that was prepared for him" fit in
with this heavenly tabernacle?
Also, the message of the veil seems to be associated with the work
of Christ (as our High Priest), entering the 'tabernacle made without
hands'...in what way could Christ (physically raised from the dead)
be said to enter through his own body???
[Aren't we dealing with two different temples here? The heavenly
temple--which has associated with it the message of the veil; and
another temple--involving another message?]
Based on the above, the interpretation (I've taken) has been
that the "veil" doesn't equal his "flesh", but rather...
"the way...through the veil" is by '(the offering of his) flesh'
--alluding back to Heb. 10:10, "By which will we have been
sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus
Christ once for all."
The problems, I have now, are these:
Heb. 10:20 uses the word "sarx", whereas Heb. 10:10 uses "soma".
(Perhaps, these terms are interchangeable...but maybe not.)
Also, I don't know enough greek to say whether my position is
supported as a possible interpretation of the verse.
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