Re: Re: hO in 1 John 1:1

Date: Tue Feb 03 1998 - 19:11:28 EST

In a message dated 2/3/98 10:57:06 PM, Carl wrote:

<<If you were told that all of these are nominative, you either misunderstood
what you were told or you were told wrong. Each instance of hO is a
relative pronoun: the first is nominative and the subject of HN, then
second is accusative and the object of .>>

To that I would add:

That the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th occurance of the relative in 1 John 1:1 are not
(and cannot be) nominative subjects of hEWRAKAMEN, AKHKOAMEN, and EQEASAMEQA
is that the subjects of these three verbs is contained in the personal endings
of each verb (-MEN, -MEN, -MEQA = 1st sing.). So the subject of each of these
verbs is "we". The hO in each of these cases *must* be an accusative object.
An interesting (or not) aside:

My Online Bible parses the first hO as an acc. sing. neut. relative also.
Here, as Carl points out, OLB is wrong.

God Bless,
Rev. Craig R. Harmon, pastor
Lutheran Church of the Apostles
5100 W. 115th Street
Alsip, IL 60803

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