Re: genitive

From: John Kendall (john-kendall@???
Date: Wed Feb 11 1998 - 07:23:49 EST

Thanks to Carl, Carlton and Paul for your help on this.

I really am quite relieved at not having to think of TUPOS as implying a verb
and I am happy to ditch my analysis of the genitive in Titus 2:7. (I think that
I was already with Carl on 1 Cor 10:6; 1 Tim 4:12 and 1 Pet 5:3.) On the other
hand, I am now left in an even greater state of incomprehension as to why
Robertson and others analysed TUPOS in these last three verses as taking an
objective genitive!

I do understand Carl's caveats with regard to the categories of
subjective/objective genitive. But, as I said, given that I don't understand
Robertson on this, and given his massive status as a grammarian, I thought that
it might be helpful if someone out there could clarify the rationale behind
*his* use of the categories. An answer, I think, wouldn't just help us in
understanding Robertson on his own terms, but would also help those of us who
dip into the older commentaries which seem to use the terms in the same way as


John Kendall

To reply, please remove the three question marks from my address.

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