From: lakr (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Feb 10 1998 - 15:06:15 EST
> Outside the Johannine writings, EN ARCHi also occurs in Acts 11:15, where
> it clearly refers to Pentecost, and in Philippians 4:15, where it seems to
> refer to the beginning of the preaching of the Gospel. Outside of the New
> Testament, EN ARCHi is both to refer to the absolute beginning (e.g. in
> Genesis 1:1, which John 1:1 seems to echo) and to refer to other kinds of
> beginnings, e.g. the beginning of the barley harvest in Ruth 1:22.
Jonathan, this is precisely the point I am trying to get a handle on.
What time period ARXH refers to is not as important as what it means to be
'EN ARXH'. Were Ruth and Naomi in your example above in Bethlehem
prior to the harvest, or did they arrive just in time ? Would the
verse make any sense at all, if they happened to live in Bethlehem
and were already there ? I understand that Greek prepositions have
a very, very wide range of usages, but if one is _in_ a time period
can it be said that one _preceded_ the time period ?
It does not appear that the writer of Ruth was interested in coveying
any information about what happened in Bethlehem before the barley
What in the context of John 1 leads you to believe that John was
trying to make a statement about what _preceded_ the ARXH ?
> Texcel Research
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