From: lakr (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Feb 10 1998 - 19:04:11 EST
> In a message dated 2/10/98 8:56:30 PM, you wrote:
> <<I understand that Greek prepositions have
> a very, very wide range of usages, but if one is _in_ a time period
> can it be said that one _preceded_ the time period ?
> Well, it seems to me, the fact that the LOGOS preceded the beginning is
> contained in the "tense" of the verb HN = was existing, or am I reading
> something into that that I shouldn't be?
Craig, Koine Greek is properly spoken of as having 'aspect'. The
imperfect of EIMI, HN, has an aspect which has been described as
_continuous_, it is true, however the endpoints of the action are
not in focus. John has simply not chosen to make this part of
the action visible to us in the prologue.
> Also the fact that John goes on to say that all things were created through
> Him and without Him nothing was created. If in fact ARXHi refers to the
> creation of all things (Gen. 1:1) then the LOGOS *must* have preceded the
> ARXHi or He would have been part of the creation. I think that the context
> then makes it clear that the LOGOS was existing (already) when creation
> happened = EN ARXHi.
Agreed. The LOGOS was existing when the physical heavens and earth
were created as referenced in Ge 1:1. However, as I pointed out in
a previous post, so were the myriads of angels, the 'sons of God'
already in existence at this time. They, however, are not the
focus of John's prologue, the LOGOS is the subject.
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