Re: John 1:1

From: mjoseph (
Date: Wed Feb 11 1998 - 15:42:15 EST

Members of the John 1:1 (was "b-Greek") discussion group--

Greg Stafford wrote:

>Two things can be stated with some degree of certainty: 1) John does not say
>the LOGOS is eternal, and 2) he does not say the LOGOS is a created being.

I trust that the contradiction here is evident. Beings are either
eternal (God) or created (the rest of us). To say that the LOGOS is
neither is to say he doesn't exist.

>He simply says that the LOGOS existed during the time referred to in Genesis

Which means, to a 1st-century Jew(ish Christian) that the LOGOS is
eternal, as the *Hebrew* of Gen. 1:1 (regardless of the possible meanings
of the Greek phrase EN ARCHi, which is best seen as a literalistic
translation of the Hebrew B:Re'SHiYT) refers to an absolute beginning,
the possible translations "In the beginning of God's creating" and "At
the beginning, when God began to create" having been convincingly refuted.

Mark Joseph

God has given us plenty of evidence if we are willing
to believe, and he has given us plenty of perplexities
if we want to buttress our disbelief--John Wenham

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