From: Andrew Kulikovsky (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Feb 12 1998 - 18:08:16 EST
From: GregStffrd@aol.com [SMTP:GregStffrd@aol.com]
Sent: Friday, February 13, 1998 6:26 AM
Subject: Re: John 1:1
See Gen. 1:1. Whether or not the LXX has translated the words
*correctly* is not important. The fact is, that Gen. 1:1 was
that way. When John uses that phrase, EN ARKHi, he is bringing
mind of his Jewish (Christian) reader the time to which Gen.
which is why I made an (apparently inappropriate) comment as to
Hebrew of Gen. 1:1 means.>>
Again, you are begging the question. What evidence do you have
to support your
view of an "absolute beginning of time"? If the context reveals
the meaning of
words, then Genesis 1:1 refers to the creation of the physical
universe, as it
does several other times in the Bible.
On day 1, God created light and according to general relativity,
he would have also created time. Hence "the beginning" is the beginning
of all time.
-- Andrew S. Kulikovsky B.App.Sc(Hons) MACS Software Engineer CelsiusTech Australia Endeavour House,Technology Park, The Levels, S.A. 5095 Phone : +61 8 8343 3837 (Direct) Fax : +61 8 8343 3778 Email : email@example.com
"God is dead." -- Nietzsche "Nietzsche is dead." -- God
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