RE: John 1:1

From: Andrew Kulikovsky (
Date: Thu Feb 12 1998 - 18:08:16 EST

        -----Original Message-----
        From: []
        Sent: Friday, February 13, 1998 6:26 AM
        Subject: Re: John 1:1

         See Gen. 1:1. Whether or not the LXX has translated the words
         *correctly* is not important. The fact is, that Gen. 1:1 was
         that way. When John uses that phrase, EN ARKHi, he is bringing
to the
         mind of his Jewish (Christian) reader the time to which Gen.
1:1 refers,
         which is why I made an (apparently inappropriate) comment as to
what the
         Hebrew of Gen. 1:1 means.>>

        Again, you are begging the question. What evidence do you have
to support your
        view of an "absolute beginning of time"? If the context reveals
the meaning of
        words, then Genesis 1:1 refers to the creation of the physical
universe, as it
        does several other times in the Bible.
        On day 1, God created light and according to general relativity,
he would have also created time. Hence "the beginning" is the beginning
of all time.


Andrew S. Kulikovsky B.App.Sc(Hons) MACS
Software Engineer
CelsiusTech Australia
Endeavour House,Technology Park,
The Levels, S.A. 5095
Phone :	+61 8 8343 3837 (Direct)
Fax : +61 8 8343 3778
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"God is dead." -- Nietzsche "Nietzsche is dead." -- God

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