Re: John 1:1

Date: Thu Feb 12 1998 - 18:59:44 EST

Andrew wrote:
 << > Mark:
> See Gen. 1:1. Whether or not the LXX has translated the words
> *correctly* is not important. The fact is, that Gen. 1:1 was
> translated
> that way. When John uses that phrase, EN ARKHi, he is bringing to the
> mind of his Jewish (Christian) reader the time to which Gen. 1:1
> refers,
> which is why I made an (apparently inappropriate) comment as to what
> the
> Hebrew of Gen. 1:1 means.>>
> Again, you are begging the question. What evidence do you have to
> support your
> view of an "absolute beginning of time"? If the context reveals the
> meaning of
> words, then Genesis 1:1 refers to the creation of the physical
> universe, as it
> does several other times in the Bible.
          On day 1, God created light and according to general relativity,
  he would have also created time. Hence "the beginning" is the beginning
  of all time.
 No, it would only refer to the beginning of time as counted from a _physical_
perspective. It says nothing about "time" as it relates to the spiritual
 Greg Stafford
 University of Wisconsin

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