From: Cooper Greg (CooperG@wsdot.wa.gov)
Date: Tue Feb 17 1998 - 11:14:27 EST
I would like to ask for feedback on Mark 16:12 (realizing that some
manuscripts include those verses, some do not and some early Church
Father's quote them and others do not re: Bullinger, Lexicon and
Concordance, page iii).
What struck me was the apparent sudden change in Christ between verses
and 12. The Greek,…EPHANEROTHE EN hETERA MORPHE…, is translated in
Marshall's Interlinear Greek-English translation, page 216, as:…"he was
manifested in a different form…." Does this strike anyone like it did
Would it not, perhaps , lend some insight into if and when and what
happened relative to an ascension(s)?
Zodhiates, in his Hebrew-Greek Study Bible, 1988 edition, page 1223,
"appeared," rather than "manifested." And in his Bible Lexicon, 5319,
1737, states that this appearing by Christ involved divine revelation:
APOKALUPTO: "to remove a veil or covering exposing to open view what
before hidden" (Lexicon, 601, page 1667).
Bullinger, in his Lexicon and Concordance, page 59, states that this
appearing means: "to make manifest, make apparent, show forth."
What was Christ, IF I understand these sources correctly, wanting to
reveal/unveil for us by appearing in this specific way?
Gregory Lee Cooper?
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