From: Jonathan Robie (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Feb 17 1998 - 09:24:49 EST
At 01:51 AM 2/17/98 -0500, David L. Moore wrote:
>>In any case, the questions you have raised do not really deal with my
>>question of whether anything in the Greek syntax and grammar of Matt. 6:11
>>precludes what I take to be the meaning of Lk. 11:3. I am *still* waiting
>>for that question to be addressed.
> About the only difference I notice between the two is that Luke
>expresses the giving as "day by day" with the imperative DIDOU in the
>durative, present tense. Matthew's Gospel puts the imperative of DIDWMI in
>the aorist tense which, with the punctiliar idea behind SHMERON, places
>emphasis on requesting for the *present* need. I'll allow you to figure out
>what that means to your theories of interpretation for this passage.
Here's Jeffrey's original question:
At 07:02 PM 2/13/98 -0600, Jeffrey Gibson wrote:
>OK. So here's the question. The Lukan form of the petition suggests that
>the situation of the petitioners is *not* one of hunger, one where they
>lack sustenance. It is presupposed that they *have* bread, they have been
>supplied with it. What they are asking for is that what they *have been*
>supplied with (this strange EPIOUSIOS bread) continue to be supplied. But
>does the Matthean version of the petition suggest or imply this? More
>importantly, is there anything in the grammar or the syntax of Matt. 6:11
>which would rule this view out of court?
I agree with David: this could be a request for today's portion. I wonder
if the versions found in Matthew and Luke were intended to be prayed at
different times of day? Just a thought...
Jonathan Robie email@example.com
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