Re: "Jerusalems" of John 1:19

From: Kevin W. Woodruff (
Date: Tue Mar 03 1998 - 09:05:35 EST


My guess is that it a Greek version of the _qere perpetuum_ of the Hebrew
dual _yerushalaim_, which according to Hebrew tradition was designed to
express the twofoldness of the city as the upper and lower city or that on
the east hill and on the west.

At 10:51 PM 3/2/98 EST, you wrote:
>Why is "Jerusalem" (IEROSOLUMWN) plural in John 1:19?
>William the Barbarian
>Royal Palm Beach, Fl.

Kevin W. Woodruff, M.Div.
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